If you’re not familiar with it, it’s found in Exodus chapter 4, and it is as jarring as it is brief. I recently listened to a recording of Old Testament scholar Michael Heiser taking his best stab at explaining what in the world is going on. Here’s my condensed version of his explanation.
When did it happen? Before Moses’ family met up with Aaron. Otherwise, Aaron probably would have done the circumcision.
Why was God angry with Moses? Moses hadn’t been properly circumcised (he might have been circumcised in the Egyptian manner), or perhaps not all. If you’re going to lead God’s covenant, you should know you need to bear the sign of the covenant.
Why didn’t Zipporah circumcise Moses? Possibly because it was cause too much of a delay.
What the deal with touching the foreskin to the feet? The word for feet there is also used in the OT as euphemism for private parts. (e.g. Deuteronomy 27,, Ezekiel 16). Touching it to Moses is something of a symbolic act, or circumcision by proxy.
What does “bridegroom of blood” mean? Perhaps an expression to show that Moses is now a legitimized Israelite man that she is safe in marrying.
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